Latest CISA exam dumps with real ISACA questions and answers
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The CISA certification is highly regarded in the industry and is recognized by employers worldwide. It demonstrates that the holder has the knowledge, skills, and abilities to effectively audit, control, and assess information technology and business systems. Certified Information Systems Auditor certification is also a requirement for many job roles in the field of information systems auditing.
The CISA certification exam is considered one of the most challenging certifications in the information security field, with a pass rate of approximately 50%. CISA exam is designed to test the candidates' knowledge of information systems auditing, control, and security, and their ability to apply this knowledge to real-world scenarios. CISA exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that must be completed within four hours. CISA exam is administered by ISACA, which is a globally recognized organization that provides guidance, certifications, and training in the field of information security.
NEW QUESTION # 511
When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor's BEST recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and:
- A. the organization's web server.
- B. the Internet
- C. the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
- D. the organization's network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet.
An IDS is a device or software that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. By placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet, the IS auditor can enhance the security of the network perimeter and detect any attack attempts that the firewall was unable to recognize.
The other options are not as effective as placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet:
* Placing an IDS between the firewall and the organization's web server would not protect the web server from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The web server should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ), which is a separate network segment that isolates public-facing servers from the internal
* network.
* Placing an IDS between the firewall and the demilitarized zone (DMZ) would not protect the DMZ from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The DMZ should be protected by two firewalls, one facing the Internet and one facing the internal network, with an IDS monitoring both sides of each firewall.
* Placing an IDS between the firewall and the organization's network would not protect the organization's network from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The organization's network should be protected by a firewall that blocks unauthorized traffic from entering or leaving the network, with an IDS monitoring both sides of the firewall.
NEW QUESTION # 512
An organization issues digital certificates to employees to enable connectivity to a web-based application. Which of the following public key infrastructure (PKI) components MUST be included in the application architecture for determining the on-going validity of connections?
- A. Secure hash algorithm (SHA)
- B. Registration authority (RA)
- C. Certificate authority (CA)
- D. Certificate revocation list (CRL)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 513
A data breach has occurred due lo malware. Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?
- A. Notify the cyber insurance company.
- B. Quarantine the impacted systems.
- C. Shut down the affected systems.
- D. Notify customers of the breach.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 514
An IS auditor finds that capacity management tor a Key system is being performed by IT with no input from the business. The auditor's PRIMARY concern would be:
- A. unanticipated increase in business s capacity needs
- B. impact to future business project funding
- C. failure to maximize the use of equipment
- D. cost of excessive data center storage capacity
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 515
An advantage in using a bottom-up vs. a top-down approach to software testing is that:
- A. interface errors are detected earlier.
- B. confidence in the system is achieved earlier.
- C. major functions and processing are tested earlier.
- D. errors in critical modules are detected earlier.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The bottom-up approach to software testing begins with the testing of atomic units, such as programs and
modules, and works upward until a complete system testing has taken place. The advantages of using a
bottom-up approach to software testing are the fact that there is no need for stubs or drivers and errors in
critical modules are found earlier. The other choices in this question all refer to advantages of a top-down
approach, which follows the opposite path, either in depth-first or breadth-first search order.
NEW QUESTION # 516
An organization is disposing of removable onsite media which contains sensitive information. Which of the following is the MOST effective method to prevent disclosure of sensitive data?
- A. Wiping and rewriting three times
- B. Encrypting and destroying keys
- C. Software formatting
- D. Machine shredding
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Machine shredding is the process of using a shredding machine to physically destroy the media and make the data unrecoverable. This is more effective than software formatting, which only erases the data logically and may leave traces that can be recovered by special tools1. Encrypting and destroying keys may prevent unauthorized access to the data, but it does not erase the data from the media. Wiping and rewriting three times is unnecessary and may reduce the lifespan of the media, especially for solid state drives2. Machine shredding is also recommended by various security standards and guidelines for media disposal345.
NEW QUESTION # 517
Which of the following access rights presents the GREATEST risk when granted to a new member of the system development staff?
- A. Write access to production program libraries
- B. Execute access to development program libraries
- C. Write access to development data libraries
- D. Execute access to production program libraries
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Write access to production program libraries presents the greatest risk when granted to a new member of the system development staff. Production program libraries contain executable code that runs on live systems and supports critical business functions. Write access allows a user to modify or delete existing programs, or add new programs to the library. If a user were to make unauthorized or erroneous changes to production programs, it could cause serious disruptions, errors, or security breaches in the organization's operations.
Therefore, write access to production program libraries should be restricted to authorized personnel only, and subject to strict change management controls.
NEW QUESTION # 518
The PRIMARY reason for using digital signatures is to ensure data:
- A. availability.
- B. confidentiality.
- C. integrity.
- D. timeliness.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Digital signatures provide integrity because the digital signature of a signed message (file, mail, document,
etc.) changes every time a single bit of the document changes; thus, a signed document cannot be altered.
Depending on the mechanism chosen to implement a digital signature, the mechanism might be able to
ensure data confidentiality or even timeliness, but this is not assured. Availability is not related to digital
signatures.
NEW QUESTION # 519
An organization has recently moved to an agile model for deploying custom code to its in-house accounting software system. When reviewing the procedures in place for production code deployment, which of the following is the MOST significant security concern to address?
- A. Production code deployment is not automated.
- B. Software vulnerability scanning is done on an ad hoc basis.
- C. Change control does not include testing and approval from quality assurance (QA).
- D. Current DevSecOps processes have not been independently verified.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Change control is the process of managing and documenting changes to an information system or its components. Change control aims to ensure that changes are authorized, tested, approved, implemented, and reviewed in a controlled and consistent manner. Change control is an essential part of ensuring the security, reliability, and quality of an information system.
One of the key elements of change control is testing and approval from quality assurance (QA). QA is the function that verifies that the changes meet the requirements and specifications, comply with the standards and policies, and do not introduce any errors or vulnerabilities. QA testing and approval provide assurance that the changes are fit for purpose, function as expected, and do not compromise the security or performance of the system.
An organization that has recently moved to an agile model for deploying custom code to its in-house accounting software system should still follow change control procedures, including QA testing and approval.
Agile development methods emphasize flexibility, speed, and collaboration, but they do not eliminate the need for quality and security checks. In fact, agile methods can facilitate change control by enabling frequent and iterative testing and feedback throughout the development cycle.
However, if change control does not include testing and approval from QA, this poses a significant security concern for the organization. Without QA testing and approval, the changes may not be properly validated, verified, or evaluated before being deployed to production. This could result in introducing bugs, defects, or vulnerabilities that could affect the functionality, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the accounting software system. For example, a change could cause data corruption, performance degradation, unauthorized access, or data leakage. These risks could have serious consequences for the organization's financial operations, compliance obligations, reputation, or legal liabilities.
Therefore, change control that does not include testing and approval from QA is the most significant security concern to address when reviewing the procedures in place for production code deployment in an agile model.
References:
* Change Control - ISACA
* Quality Assurance - ISACA
* Agile Development - ISACA
* 10 Agile Software Development Security Concerns You Need to Know
NEW QUESTION # 520
An organization has suffered a number of incidents in which USB flash drives with sensitive data have been
lost. Which of the following be MOST effective in preventing loss of sensitive data?
- A. Implementing a check-in/check-out process for USB flash drives
- B. Increasing the frequency of security awareness training
- C. Issuing encrypted USB flash drives to staff
- D. Modifying the disciplinary policy to be more stringent
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support
NEW QUESTION # 521
The MAJOR reason for segregating test programs from production programs is to:
- A. provide control over program changes
- B. achieve segregation of duties between IS staff and end users
- C. provide the basis for efficient system change management
- D. limit access rights of IS staff to the development environment.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 522
What is the primary objective of a control self-assessment (CSA) program?
- A. Replacement of the audit responsibility
- B. Enhancement of the audit responsibility
- C. Elimination of the audit responsibility
- D. Integrity of the audit responsibility
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Audit responsibility enhancement is an objective of a control self-assessment (CSA) program.
NEW QUESTION # 523
The implementation of access controls FIRST requires:
- A. the labeling of IS resources.
- B. a classification of IS resources.
- C. an inventory of IS resources.
- D. the creation of an access control list.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION # 524
The PRIMARY benefit of automating application testing is to:
- A. provide test consistency.
- B. reduce the time to review code.
- C. provide more flexibility.
- D. replace all manual test processes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary benefit of automating application testing is to provide test consistency. Automated testing can ensure that the same test cases are executed in the same manner and order every time, which can improve the reliability and accuracy of the test results. Providing more flexibility, replacing all manual test processes, and reducing the time to review code are possible benefits of automating application testing, but they are not the primary benefit. References:
* ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2020, p. 3091
* ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription
NEW QUESTION # 525
AN IS auditor has been asked to perform an assurance review of an organization's mobile computing security.
To ensure the organization is able to centrally manage mobile devices to protect against data disclosure. It is MOST important for the auditor to determine whether:
- A. lost devices can be located remotely
- B. a mobile security awareness training program exists.
- C. procedures for lost devices include remote wiping of data
- D. a security exist for mobile devices.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 526
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an internal IS auditor regarding IT controls?
- A. Continuously monitoring IT control operations and reporting any abnormal or exceptional cases
- B. Validating IT control effectiveness after implementation across the organization
- C. Designing and deploying IT controls as part of normal operations
- D. Providing independent assurance to the public over IT controls implemented by the organization
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 527
Which of the following tests is MOST likely to detect an error in one subroutine resulting from a recent change in another subroutine?
- A. Stress testing
- B. User acceptance testing
- C. Regression testing
- D. Black-box testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support
NEW QUESTION # 528
Which of the following security testing techniques is MOST effective in discovering unknown malicious attacks?
- A. Penetration testing
- B. Vulnerability testing
- C. Reverse engineering
- D. Sandboxing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 529
During an exit meeting, an IS auditor highlights that backup cycles are being missed due to operator error and that these exceptions are not being managed.
Which of the following is the BEST way to help management understand the associated risk?
- A. Explain the impact to disaster recovery.
- B. Explain the impact to incident management.
- C. Explain the impact to resource requirements.
- D. Explain the impact to backup scheduling.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 530
An organization has fully outsourced its email functions to a third-party cloud service provider Which of the following is the MOST Important responsibility of the IT unit supporting this function9
- A. Monitoring service provider performance
- B. Reassessing service provider contracts annually
- C. Approving timely service provider payments
- D. Reviewing independent audit reports of the service provider
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 531
Applying a retention date on a file will ensure that:
- A. data cannot be read until the date is set.
- B. backup copies are not retained after that date.
- C. data will not be deleted before that date.
- D. datasets having the same name are differentiated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A retention date will ensure that a file cannot be overwritten before that date has passed. The retention date will not affect the ability to read the file. Backup copies would be expected to have a different retention date and therefore may be retained after the file has been overwritten. The creation date, not the retention date, will differentiate files with the same name.
NEW QUESTION # 532
An IS auditor performing a review of the backup processing facilities should be MOST concerned that:
- A. adequate fire insurance exists.
- B. backup processing facilities are fully tested.
- C. offsite storage of transaction and master files exists.
- D. regular hardware maintenance is performed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Adequate fire insurance and fully tested backup processing facilities are important elements for recovery, but without the offsite storage of transaction and master files, it is generally impossible to recover. Regular hardware maintenance does not relate to recovery.
NEW QUESTION # 533
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ISACA CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) certification is a globally recognized credential awarded to individuals who demonstrate expertise in information systems auditing, control, and security. Certified Information Systems Auditor certification is designed to validate the knowledge and skills required to assess the security and control of complex enterprise systems, and to provide assurance that they are operating in accordance with established standards and best practices.
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