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NEW QUESTION # 26
What is a requirement for a corrective action made in response to a nonconformity?
- A. They are appropriate to the effects of the nonconformity
- B. They do NOT change the organization's information security policies
- C. They always eliminate the cause of the nonconformity
- D. They are proportionate to the likelihood of the nonconformity recurring
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 10.1 (Nonconformity and corrective action) specifies:
"The organization shall react to the nonconformity and, as applicable: take action to control and correct it; deal with the consequences; evaluate the need for action to eliminate the cause(s)...
Corrective actions shall be appropriate to the effects of the nonconformities encountered." This confirms optionB. Option A is inaccurate-ISO requires actions appropriate toeffects, not probability alone. Option C is false-policies may need updating to correct nonconformities. Option D is incorrect, as not every cause can always be eliminated; residual issues may exist.
Thus, the verified requirement isB.
NEW QUESTION # 27
What is the name of the control clause used to control information security breaches within Annex A of ISO
/IEC 27001?
- A. Reporting information security incidents
- B. Information security event management
- C. Response to information security events
- D. Information security event reporting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A in ISO/IEC 27001 refers directly to ISO/IEC 27002 for control guidance. In ISO/IEC 27002:2022, Clause 6.8 is titled:
"Information security event reporting - Information security events should be reported through appropriate management channels as quickly as possible." This control ensures breaches, incidents, or suspected issues are reported for action. The other options (B, C, D) are not the exact titles in Annex A. The official title isInformation security event reporting, confirming
NEW QUESTION # 28
Who determines the number of days required for a certification audit?
- A. The management representative from the organization to be audited
- B. The lead internal auditor from the organization to be audited
- C. Both the management representative and the external auditor together
- D. The external auditor from the Certification Body who will undertake the audit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Certification audits are carried out byCertification Bodies (CBs), not the organization itself. ISO/IEC 27001 requires external certification audits to be independent, impartial, and objective. According to ISO/IEC 27006 (Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of ISMS), the Certification Body determines the audit duration and number of audit daysbased on factors such as organizational size, complexity, scope, and risk environment. This ensures consistency across organizations and prevents manipulation by the auditee. ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 9.2 and 9.3 addressinternal audit and management review, but the determination of certification audit days is outside the organization's control; it rests solely with the accredited Certification Body auditors. Thus, answer: Bis correct, as the CB's external auditor formally calculates and assigns the audit time.
NEW QUESTION # 29
What is required to be reported by the Information security event reporting control?
- A. Information disclosure
- B. Unauthorized access
- C. Asset disposal
- D. Observed or suspected events
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A, control 6.8 (Information security event reporting) specifies:
"Information security events should be reported through appropriate management channels as quickly as possible. The organization should require all employees and contractors to note and report any observed or suspected information security events." This wording confirms that the required reporting covers"observed or suspected events."Specific event types like information disclosure (A) or unauthorized access (B) are examples but not the broad requirement.
Asset disposal (C) is addressed separately under equipment lifecycle controls (Annex A.7.14).
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD: Observed or suspected events.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which action is a required response to an identified residual risk?
- A. By default, it shall be controlled by information security awareness and training
- B. It shall be reviewed by the risk owner to consider acceptance
- C. Top management shall delegate its treatment to risk owners
- D. The organization shall change practices to avoid the risk occurring
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (e) specifies:
"The organization shall obtain risk owners' approval of the information security risk treatment plan and acceptance of the residual information security risks." This confirms that residual risks - those remaining after risk treatment - must be reviewed and formally accepted by the designated risk owner. Option A is incorrect; awareness training is not a default control for all residual risks. Option B misrepresents leadership responsibility; top management ensures processes exist, but risk ownersformally approve residual risk. Option D (avoiding risk) is a treatment option, not the mandated requirement for residual risks.
Thus, the required response isC: Review and acceptance by the risk owner.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?
- A. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
- B. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities
- C. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
- D. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
"Information security, cybersecurity and privacy protection - [ ? ]" is the title of ISO/IEC 27005.
- A. Information security management systems - Requirements
- B. Guidelines for information security management systems auditing
- C. Information security controls
- D. Guidance on managing information security risks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27005 standards:
ISO/IEC 27005:2022 is titled:
"Information security, cybersecurity and privacy protection - Guidance on managing information security risks." This standard provides structured methodologies for identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks, in alignment with ISO/IEC 27001's risk management requirements (Clause 6.1.2 and 6.1.3). It supports organizations in implementing the risk management process that underpins an ISMS. Options A and B are titles of other ISO standards (ISO/IEC 27007 for auditing, ISO/IEC 27001 for requirements). Option D refers to ISO/IEC 27002 (controls).
Thus, the correct answer isC: Guidance on managing information security risks.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which audit activity related to ISO/IEC 27001 may be carried out by a practitioner?
- A. Conduct an audit of a Certification Body
- B. Conduct an internal audit of the organization
- C. Conduct a surveillance audit of their own area of the organization
- D. Conduct an audit of an Accredited Training Organization
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 requires internal audits and sets out how they must be conducted: "The organization shall conduct internal audits at planned intervals..." (9.2.1) and "plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s)... [and] select auditors and conduct audits that ensure objectivity and the impartiality of the audit process" (9.2.2). These extracts confirm that practitioners (internal to the organization) can conduct internal audits provided objectivity and impartiality are ensured (e.g., they do not audit their own work). Surveillance audits (option A) and audits of Accredited Training Organizations or Certification Bodies (options C, D) are third-party activities outside the remit of an internal practitioner under ISO/IEC 27001; the standard's audit requirement is focused on the organization's own internal audit programme. Therefore, conducting an internal audit (B) is the correct practitioner activity per Clause 9.2.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?
- A. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
- B. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities
- C. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
- D. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which statement describes a requirement of an internal audit programme?
- A. The programme must use third party auditors to ensure impartiality
- B. All processes must be audited within a 3-year cycle
- C. The programme must consider the importance of the target processes
- D. Previous audit results are disregarded to ensure objectivity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 9.2.2 of ISO/IEC 27001:2022 specifies requirements for the internal audit programme. It requires organizations to:
"Plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s) including the frequency, methods, responsibilities, planning requirements and reporting, which shall take into consideration the importance of the processes concerned, changes affecting the organization, and the results of previous audits." This makes optionCcorrect, since importance of the processes is a required factor. Option A is incorrect because audits do not need third-party auditors; objectivity can be maintained internally if independence is respected. Option B is wrong because previous audit results must be considered, not disregarded. Option D is also incorrect - the standard does not specify a 3-year cycle; frequency depends on risks and needs.
Thus, the correct verified answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which statement describes Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Defines a mandatory list of controls that shall be implemented
- B. Defines the criteria for accepting risks
- C. Provides a reference list of information security controls and their requirements
- D. Provides measures to determine risk treatment effectiveness
Answer: C
Explanation:
Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001:2022 is titled:
"Reference control objectives and controls." It provides areference list of information security controls, structured into 4 themes: organizational, people, physical, and technological.
The standard explicitly states in Clause 6.1.3: "Organizations can design controls as required or identify them from any source. Annex A contains a list of possible information security controls." This means controls in Annex A are not mandatory (eliminating option C). Risk acceptance criteria (A) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, not Annex A. Annex A also does not provide measures for treatment effectiveness (D).
Thus, Annex A is best described as areference list of information security controls. Correct answer:B.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which information is required to be included in the Statement of Applicability?
- A. The scope and boundaries of the ISMS
- B. The justification for including each information security control
- C. The criteria against which risk will be evaluated
- D. The risk assessment approach of the organization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (d) requires that the organization"produce a Statement of Applicability that contains the necessary controls (see Annex A), and justification for inclusions, whether they are implemented or not, and the justification for exclusions." This is the defining requirement of the SoA: it documents which Annex A controls are relevant, which are implemented, and the justification for inclusion/exclusion. While the ISMS scope (A) is documented in Clause 4.3, and risk evaluation criteria (C) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, these do not belong in the SoA. The SoA does not describe the full risk assessment approach (B); that is part of the risk assessment methodology.
Therefore, the mandatory requirement for the SoA isjustification for including (or excluding) each information security control.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which item is required to be included in an information security policy?
- A. A framework enabling concerns with the information security policy to be addressed
- B. A plan for the continual improvement of the information security management system
- C. A Statement of Applicability which defines the necessary controls to be implemented
- D. A commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 5.2 (Information security policy) requires that the policy:
* "includes information security objectives (or provides a framework for setting them)"
* "includes a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security"
* "includes a commitment to continual improvement of the ISMS."
Among the listed options, the exact mandatory requirement is"a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security". Option B partially reflects Clause 5.2 (commitment to continual improvement), but the wording given in the standard prioritizes the satisfaction of applicable requirements (e.g., legal, regulatory, contractual). Option C is not a policy requirement. Option D (Statement of Applicability) is a separate mandatory document (Clause 6.1.3) and not part of the policy itself.
Thus, the correct answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which trend in information security performance is required to be considered during a management review of the ISMS?
- A. Achievement of information security objectives
- B. Validity of information continuity controls
- C. Decisions related to continual improvement opportunities
- D. Relevant external and internal requirements changes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 9.3.2 (Management Review Inputs) states that management reviews shall include:
"c) information on the information security performance, including trends in: (1) nonconformities and corrective actions; (2) monitoring and measurement results; (3) audit results; and (4) fulfilment of information security objectives." This makesachievement of information security objectives(option A) a required trend to be considered.
While external/internal requirements (C) and continual improvement opportunities (D) are also part of management review inputs, they are not specifically listed under "trends in performance." Option B is outside the direct requirement.
Thus, the verified answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 40
What activity is done first when preparing for an initial certification audit?
- A. Provide records to the Certification Body auditor for the Stage 2 audit
- B. Agree the scope of the ISMS with the Certification Body auditor
- C. Provide evidence that nonconformities from an internal audit have been actioned
- D. Provide documents to the Certification Body auditor for the Stage 1 audit
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27001:2022 standards and certification guidance:
Before a certification audit can begin, thescope of the ISMSmust be clearly defined and agreed with the Certification Body. ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 4.3 requires: "The scope shall be available as documented information." Certification Bodies require this scope statement to plan audit duration, resources, and coverage. Only after the scope is agreed does the Stage 1 audit begin, which reviews documented information and readiness. Stage
2 focuses on implementation and effectiveness. Evidence of corrective actions (C) is checked at Stage 2 if issues were identified earlier. Records provision (D) occurs during Stage 2, not first.
Thus, the first step in preparing for certification isA: Agreeing the scope of the ISMS with the Certification Body auditor.
NEW QUESTION # 41
To whom are the information security policies required to be communicated, according to the control in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Relevant personnel and relevant interested parties
- B. Top management
- C. Employees within the scope of the ISMS
- D. Only staff with accountability for ISMS operation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) clearly specifies:
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties..." This means the communication obligation is not limited to top management (A) or only ISMS staff (B), nor does it stop at employees only (C). Instead, ISO/IEC 27001/27002 mandate a broader scope: allrelevant personnel and relevant interested partiesmust be informed. This ensures both internal stakeholders (employees, contractors, temporary staff) and external interested parties (suppliers, partners, regulators, customers, etc.) receive the right policy communications where applicable. Therefore, the correct and verified answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which output is a required result from risk analysis?
- A. Prioritized risks for treatment
- B. Risk treatment control options
- C. Risk acceptance criteria
- D. Determined levels of risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.2 (d) states that duringrisk analysis, the organization shall:
* "assess the potential consequences that would result if the risks identified... were to materialize;"
* "assess the realistic likelihood of the occurrence of the risks identified;"
* "determine the levels of risk."
This makes it clear that the requiredoutput of risk analysis is the determined levels of risk. Risk acceptance criteria (A) are set earlier in 6.1.2(a), treatment control options (C) belong to 6.1.3, and prioritization (D) is part of risk evaluation (6.1.2 e). Therefore, the verified correct output isB: Determined levels of risk.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which is a control title within Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Protection of documents
- B. Change control
- C. Responsibilities and procedures
- D. Information security in supplier relationships
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
In ISO/IEC 27002:2022, which provides control guidance for Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001, Clause 5.19 is titled:"Information security in supplier relationships." This control requires organizations to ensure that information security is addressed in supplier agreements and relationships. It is part of theOrganizational Controls theme. The other options are not control titles in Annex A:
* "Responsibilities and procedures" (B) was used in older standards like ISO/IEC 27001:2005 but no longer exists.
* "Protection of documents" (C) relates to document control but is not a specific Annex A control.
* "Change control" (D) is relevant to ITIL/ITSM but not listed as a control title in Annex A.
Therefore, the correct Annex A control title isA: Information security in supplier relationships.
NEW QUESTION # 44
In which clause would the requirements for internal audit be found?
- A. Operation
- B. Improvement
- C. Planning
- D. Performance Evaluation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The requirements for internal audit are explicitly placed inClause 9.2 (Performance Evaluation)of ISO/IEC
27001:2022. The standard requires:
* "The organization shall conduct internal audits at planned intervals to provide information on whether the information security management system... conforms to the organization's own requirements... and to the requirements of this document." (9.2.1)
* "The organization shall plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s)..." (9.2.2) This clause clearly falls underPerformance Evaluation (Clause 9), not Planning (Clause 6), Operation (Clause 8), or Improvement (Clause 10). Therefore, the correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which activity is a required element of information security risk identification?
- A. Determine the level of risk
- B. Consider the likelihood of the occurrence
- C. Determine the risk owners
- D. Prioritize the risk for treatment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.2 defines the mandatory elements of risk assessment. Under risk identification, the standard requires: "identifies the information security risks:1) apply the information security risk assessment process to identify risks...; and2) identify the risk owners." By contrast, considering likelihood and determining levels of risk (options B and D) are part ofrisk analysis(6.1.2 d) "assess the realistic likelihood...";
"determine the levels of risk"), and prioritization for treatment (option C) is part ofrisk evaluation(6.1.2 e)
"prioritize the analysed risks for risk treatment"). Therefore, the specific activity that belongs torisk identificationis toidentify the risk owners. This sequencing is prescribed to ensure each risk has a designated owner responsible for decisions on treatment and acceptance downstream.
NEW QUESTION # 46
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